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NEW QUESTION # 87
Which of the following is a key feature of liquidated damage clauses?
- A. The amount of damage is predetermined
- B. The liquidated damages are non-negotiable
- C. The amount of liquidated damages must be exceptionally larger than the actual damages incurred
- D. Liquidated damage is a penalty
Answer: A
Explanation:
Liquidated damages are presented in certain legal contracts as an estimate of otherwise intangible or hard-to-define losses to one of the parties. It is a provision that allows for the payment of a specified sum should one of the parties be in breach of contract.
Understanding Liquidated Damages
Liquidated damages are meant as a fair representation of losses in situations where actual damages are difficult to ascertain. In general, liquidated damages are meant to be fair, rather than punitive.
Liquidated damages may be referred to in a specific contract clause to cover circumstances where a party faces a loss from assets that do not have a direct monetary correlation. For example, if a party in a contract were to leak supply chain pricing information that is vital to a business, this could fall under liquidated damages.
A common example is a design phase for a new product that may involve consultation with outside suppliers and consultants in addition to a company's employees. The underlying plans or designs for a product might not have a set market value. This may be true even if the subsequent product is crucial to the progress and growth of a company. These plans may be deemed to be trade secrets of the business and highly sensitive. If the plans were exposed by a disgruntled employee or supplier, it could greatly hamper the ability to generate revenue from the release of that product. A company would have to make an estimation in advance of what such losses could cost in order to include this in a liquidated damages clause of a contract.
Limitations of Liquidated Damages
It is possible that a liquidated damages clause might not be enforced by the courts. This can occur if the monetary amount of liquidated damages cited in the clause is extraordinarily disproportional to the scope of what was affected by the breached contract.
Such limitations prevent a plaintiff from attempting to claim an unsubstantiated exorbitant amount from a defendant. For instance, a plaintiff might not be able to claim liquidated damages that amount to multiples of its gross revenue if the breach only affected a specific portion of its operations. The concept of liquidated damages is framed around compensation related to some harm and injury to the party rather than a fine imposed on the defendant.
The courts typically require that the parties involved make the most reasonable assessment possible for the liquidated damages clause at the time the contract is signed. This can provide a sense of understanding and reassurance of what is at stake if that aspect of the contract is breached. A liquidated damages clause can also give the parties involved a basis to negotiate from for an out-of-court settlement.
Reference:
- Liquidated Damages
- CIPS study guide page 158-159
LO 3, AC 3.2
NEW QUESTION # 88
GPP, the employer, and Prosolia UK, the contractor, entered into five EPC contracts for the development of five different solar power generation plants in the United Kingdom. Four out of the five developments failed to be commissioned by the relevant due dates, with the delays ranging from 44 to 285 days.
Among other claims, GPP, acting through its two investment vehicles, claimed liquidated damages of £500 per day in all four contracts for Prosolia UK's failure to achieve completion of the plants by the due date. The liquidated damages claimed amounted to £1,804,221 across the four delayed contracts.
Prosolia, alongside various other defences, raised the defence that the liquidated damages provision in each contract was a penalty, and therefore unenforceable against it. Is Prosolia contractually obliged to make the payment to the plaintiff?
- A. No, the amount claimed is too excessive and it may put Prosolia into insolvency. The clause must be void
- B. Yes, the clause is a genuine estimate of possible losses that GPP may have suffered and therefore, it is enforceable.
- C. Yes, the amount is a reward to the employer as they have supervised and monitored the projects
- D. No, the clause must be treated as a penalty clause which is unenforceable in UK
Answer: B
Explanation:
A liquidated damages clause specifies a predetermined amount of money that must be paid as damages for failure to perform under a contract. The amount of the liquidated damages is supposed to be the parties' best estimate at the time they sign the contract of the damages that would be caused by a breach. If a breach occurs and the liquidated damages clause is enforceable, the parties do not calculate the actual damages (i.e., how much money a party actually lost as a result of the breach). Instead, the breaching party pays the predetermined sum provided by the liquidated damages provision.
To be enforceable, a liquidated damages clause should meet the following criteria.
Damages are difficult to estimate. A court will be more likely to enforce a liquidated damages provision if the damages that will be incurred as a result of a breach of the contract are difficult to estimate when the contract is entered into. In certain situations, injuries are easy to prove. For example, if a breach will result in the loss of sales, it is easy to determine the actual damages by calculating lost profits. Others are more difficult, like the harm caused by breach of a confidentiality agreement or theft of trade secrets. To be enforceable, the damages should be either uncertain or difficult to quantify at the time the contract is entered into.
The amount is reasonable and not a penalty. If the amount of the liquidated damages is grossly disproportionate to the actual harm incurred, a court will likely find it is a penalty or punishment and will not enforce the provision. When making this analysis, courts usually consider what was reasonable at the time the contract was entered into as opposed to when the breach occurred. There have been cases, however, where courts will decide the reasonableness of the damage estimate based on the actual harm at the time of the breach.
The scenario is excerpted and edited based on a real world case law. In that case, the court held that GPP was entitled to liquidated damages under all four of the EPC contracts, ruling that the provisions did not amount to unenforceable penalties in each of the contracts.
Reference:
- CIPS study guide page 158-159
- Liquidated damages in energy projects
- What Is a Liquidated Damages Provision?
LO 3, AC 3.2
NEW QUESTION # 89
Which of the following is the international standard for labelling hazardous substances?
- A. CODEX STAN 1-1985
- B. GHS
- C. HSE
- D. GPS
Answer: B
Explanation:
GHS stands for the Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals. GHS defines and classifies the hazards of chemical products, and communicates health and safety information on labels and safety data sheets). The goal is that the same set of rules for classifying hazards, and the same format and content for labels and safety data sheets (SDS) will be adopted and used around the world. An international team of hazard communication experts developed GHS.
The Global Positioning System (GPS), originally NAVSTAR GPS, is a satellite-based radionavigation system owned by the United States government and operated by the United States Space Force. It is one of the global navigation satellite systems (GNSS) that provides geolocation and time information to a GPS receiver anywhere on or near the Earth where there is an unobstructed line of sight to four or more GPS satellites. Obstacles such as mountains and buildings block the relatively weak GPS signals.
CODEX STAN 1-1985 is general standard for the labelling of packaged goods.
Environment (E), health (H) and safety (S) (together EHS) is a discipline and specialty that studies and implements practical aspects of environmental protection and safety at work. In simple terms it is what organizations must do to make sure that their activities do not cause harm to anyone.
Reference:
LO 2, AC 2.1
NEW QUESTION # 90
MWB operates serviced offices in central London. Rock entered a contractual licence with MWB to occupy office space in Marble Arch and had accumulated licence fees in arrears. The original licence agreement contained a 'No Oral Modification' clause that said: 'All variations to this licence must be agreed, set out in writing and signed on behalf of both parties before they take effect'.
After 6 months, Rock director re-negotiated to extend payment period over phone call and MWB credit controller agreed his proposal. Is this agreement considered as an effective variation to the original licence agreement?
- A. Yes, because parties who agree to altering the original contract orally despite a 'No Oral.
- B. No, because Rock director assumed that the variation was effective and convinced credit controller to believe it
- C. Yes, because the credit controller had agreed with Rock director's proposal
- D. Modification' clause, must have intended to dispense with the clause
- E. No, because the mechanism for variation has been set out in the original contract
Answer: E
Explanation:
The license can be amended during its lifespan. However, in this case, it already has a clause allowing for mechanism of variation which sets out who can authorise changes and prohibits any oral variation. Therefore, the agreement between Rock's director and MWB credit controller is not an effective variation to the license.
Reference:
LO 1, AC 1.1
NEW QUESTION # 91
Under general legal principles of contract formation, which of the following will always automatically result in the termination of an offer?
1. Negotiation
2. Rejection
3. Failure conditionality
4. Non-disclosure
- A. 3 and 4 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 1 and 4 only
- D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: D
Explanation:
There are a number of ways for an offer to be terminated. They are events that may occur after an offer has been made which bring it to an end so that it can no longer be accepted. An offer is terminated in the following circumstances:
1. Revocation
2. Rejection
3. Lapse of time
4. Conditional Offer (or Failure of Conditionality)
5. Operation of law
6. Death
7. Acceptance
8. Illegality
Reference:
- How Is an Offer Terminated?
- CIPS study guide page 31-32
LO 1, AC 1.2
NEW QUESTION # 92
Express terms in a contract are stated in which of the following? Select TWO that apply
- A. Writing form
- B. Orality
- C. Statutes
- D. Trade customs
- E. Idea
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Express terms are the terms of the agreement which are expressly agreed between the parties. Ideally, they will be written down in a contract between the parties but where the contract is agreed verbally, they will be the terms discussed and agreed between the parties.
Implied terms are terms implied into the contract by the courts. They are not expressly set out in the contract but are taken to be as effective as if they were and as if they had been included from day one of the contract. The express terms and any implied terms together create the legally binding obligations on the parties.
Reference:
- Contracts: Express and Implied Terms
- CIPS study guide page 126-132
LO 3, AC 3.1
NEW QUESTION # 93
Under which of the following scenarios an RFQ is most likely to be used?
- A. When the buying organisation does not know the requirements in details and needs the input from suppliers
- B. Design of a unique and complex software code
- C. Purchase of complex machinery
- D. Purchase of a small number of standardised products under a framework agreement
Answer: D
Explanation:
The request for quotations is a procurement method that is used for small value procurements of readily available off-the-shelf goods, small value construction works, or small value services procurements. Request for quotations works best under a framework agreement This procurement method is also known as invitation to quote and shopping, and it does not require the preparation of tender documents to the same extent as open tendering, request for proposals or two-stage tendering.
Among 4 options:
- "Purchase of a small number of standardised products under a framework agreement": the products are standardised and there is a framework agreement in place, so RFQ is the best solution.
- "Purchase of complex machinery": Complex machinery is often a large purchase. Furthermore, suppliers' quality may vary. So RFQ is not suitable, instead, depending on the situation, buyer may opt ITT or RFP to purchase this type of machinery.
- "Design of a unique and complex software code": Unique and complex software is not off-the-shelf, thus RFQ is not suitable.
- "When the buying organisation does not know the requirements in details and needs the input from suppliers": When the detailed requirements are unknown, the best solution is request for proposal or developing dialogue with suppliers.
Reference:
- Request for Quotations
- CIPS study guide page 3-4
LO 1, AC 1.1
NEW QUESTION # 94
EAC Facilities Management is planning for a new construction project in the suburban are a. They decide to use NEC or FIDIC model form of contract for this project. Is this a right course of action?
- A. No, the contractor won't understand the legal terminology in the contract forms
- B. No, the buyer will bear all the risks derived from the contract
- C. Yes, using these forms will eliminate all the risks
- D. Yes, these forms aim at balanced risk/reward allocation between the parties
Answer: D
Explanation:
Construction procurement is particularly complex and risky. Forming a contract in construction may take lots of time and energy of both client and contractor. Therefore, standardisation in construction contract would help the buying organisation to save their precious resources. Furthermore, the wording of these model form contracts is accurate as it has been agreed among the professionals within an industry.
One of the advantage of using model forms of contract is the balanced of risk and reward allocation between the contractor, consultant engineer and the client.
Reference:
- An Introduction to FIDIC model contracts
- CIPS study guide page 139-147
LO 3, AC 3.1
NEW QUESTION # 95
Which of the following are likely to feature within an outcome-specification?
1. Dimension
2. Performance requirement
3. Input material
4. Product function
- A. 3 and 4 only
- B. 2 and 4 only
- C. 1 and 2 only
- D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
There are two main types of specification: performance specification and conformance specification (sometimes called prescriptive or technical specifications).
Performance specifications have following features:
- Focus on outputs
- Set out result to be achieved
- The 'what', not the 'how'
- Give supplier flexibility to present solutions that the buyer may not have considered Reference:
LO 1, AC 1.1
NEW QUESTION # 96
Which of the following clauses addresses fraud, bribery and corruption?
The Company has undertaken commercially reasonable efforts to eliminate Conflict Minerals from each Company Product and any products currently proposed to be manufactured by the Company or on its behalf in the future. "Conflict Minerals" means columbite-tantalite (coltan), cassiterite, gold, wolframite, or their derivatives, which originate in the Democratic Republic of the Congo or other country the exploitation and trade of which is determined by the United States to be financing conflict in the Democratic Republic of the Congo or other country.
- A. Each Party hereby undertakes that, at the date of the entering into force of the Contract, itself, its directors, officers or employees have not offered, promised, given, authorized, solicited or accepted any undue pecuniary or other advantage of any kind in any way connected with the Contract and that it has taken reasonable measures to prevent subcontractors, agents or any other third parties, subject to its control or determining influence, from doing so.
- B. Customer will be responsible for and shall ensure that while Service Provider employees, agents or contractors are on Customer's premises, all proper and legal health and safety precautions are in place and fully operational to protect such persons.
- C. Nothing in this Agreement shall prevent a Party from utilizing the services of any subcontractor as it deems appropriate to perform its obligations under this Agreement; provided, however, that each Party shall require its subcontractors to comply with all applicable terms and conditions of this
- D. Agreement in providing such services and each Party shall remain primarily liable to the other Party for the performance of such subcontractor.
Answer: A
Explanation:
This question is intended to let students know about how contractual clauses regarding ethical issues is constructed. The exam paper may not ask about this.
"Each Party hereby undertakes that, at the date of the entering into force of the Contract, itself, its directors, officers or employees have not offered, promised, given, authorized, solicited or accepted any undue pecuniary or other advantage of any kind in any way connected with the Contract and that it has taken reasonable measures to prevent subcontractors, agents or any other third parties, subject to its control or determining influence, from doing so.": This is a clause addressing fraud, bribery and corruption. It is created to prevent any undue act by contracting parties. You may find other anti-corruption clause samples in this document.
"Nothing in this Agreement shall prevent a Party from utilizing the services of any subcontractor as it deems appropriate to perform its obligations under this Agreement; provided, however, that each Party shall require its subcontractors to comply with all applicable terms and conditions of this Agreement in providing such services and each Party shall remain primarily liable to the other Party for the performance of such subcontractor.": This clause is used to control the subcontracting and subcontractors.
"Customer will be responsible for and shall ensure that while Service Provider employees, agents or contractors are on Customer's premises, all proper and legal health and safety precautions are in place and fully operational to protect such persons.": This clause is used to ensure health and safety standards.
"The Company has undertaken commercially reasonable efforts to eliminate Conflict Minerals from each Company Product and any products currently proposed to be manufactured by the Company or on its behalf in the future. "Conflict Minerals" means columbite-tantalite (coltan), cassiterite, gold, wolframite, or their derivatives, which originate in the Democratic Republic of the Congo or other country the exploitation and trade of which is determined by the United States to be financing conflict in the Democratic Republic of the Congo or other country.": This is a clause addressing conflict minerals.
Reference:
LO 3, AC 3.2
NEW QUESTION # 97
A procurement manager is setting KPIs measurement for user satisfaction. He also wants to encourage users to share the reason why they feel the way they do. Which of the following types of KPI should the procurement manager apply?
- A. Quantitative measure
- B. Binary measure
- C. Numerical measure
- D. Qualitative assessment
Answer: D
Explanation:
There are 3 types of KPI measure:
- Binary KPIs
- Quantitative KPIs (or numerical)
- Qualitative KPIs
User satisfaction is subjective, therefore, using qualitative assessment is the best answer.
Reference:
LO 2, AC 2.2
NEW QUESTION # 98
When a supplier signs an insurance policy with an insurance company, which of the following is transferred to insurance company?
- A. Contractual obligation
- B. Right
- C. Legal responsibility
- D. Risk
Answer: D
Explanation:
An insurance policy transfers a specific set of risks such as the fire and flood risk for a particular asset.
The legal liability does not transfer to the insurance company (known as insurer).
Reference:
LO 3, AC 3.2
NEW QUESTION # 99
Since services are intangible, so KPIs for services must be qualitative in all circumstances. Is this statement correct?
- A. No, some KPIs for services are measurable by means of outcome, time and space performed
- B. Yes, quantitative KPIs are limited to timeliness of supply of goods, defective rates and in-full quantities, which are applied to monitor supplier of physical goods
- C. Yes, the only measure mattered to supply of services is end-users' satisfaction
- D. No, KPIs for services must always be quantitative so that they can be measured easily
Answer: A
Explanation:
KPIs are used to monitor supplier's performance. They can be qualitative or quantitative. Of course, service providers can be monitored by quantitative KPIs regarding the outcome achieved (such as uptime in IT contracts), timeliness of deliveries (such as in construction contracts)...
Reference:
LO 2, AC 2.2
NEW QUESTION # 100
Which of the following are NOT covered by CISG? Select TWO that apply:
- A. Contract validity
- B. Transfer of risks
- C. Liability to pay damages
- D. Liability of the seller for death or personal injury
- E. Remedies for breach of contracts
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
United Nations Convention on Contracts for the International Sale of Goods (Vienna Convention or CISG) Vienna Convention was prepared by by the United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL) and adopted by a diplomatic conference on 11 April 1980. The Convention was welcomed by several countries from different geographic areas, with different legal and political systems. As of 20 August 2020, the Convention has93 Contracting States. The Convention has proved the effectiveness of an uniform text on international trade law.
What CISG covers, and what it does not
In the 6 first articles of the Convention, the authors set up the boundaries of its application.
First is about where it applies. According to UNCITRAL, the Convention applies to contracts of sale of goods between parties whose places of business are in different States and either both of those States are Contracting States or the rules of private international law lead to the law of a Contracting State. A few States have availed themselves of the authorisation in article 95 to declare that they would apply the Convention only in the former and not in the latter of these two situations. As the Convention becomes more widely adopted, the practical significance of such a declaration will diminish. Finally, the Convention may also apply as the law applicable to the contract if so chosen by the parties. In that case, the operation of the Convention will be subject to any limits on contractual stipulations set by the otherwise applicable law.
Second, the Convention has a list of goods that are not subject to its application in Article 2. Article 3 clarifies the differences between manufacturing contracts and sale contract.
Third, Article 4 and 5 clearly states what CISG does not covers, including grounds for contract invalidity and liabilities to death or injury of person caused by the the goods Finally, the Convention respects the contractual freedom of the trading parties. Trading parties may select this convention as governing law or select other instrument, such as UPICC or domestic laws.
Reference:
- Governing law in International Contracts - Would you choose CISG or UPICC (Part 1)
- CIPS study guide page 49-52
LO 1, AC 1.2
NEW QUESTION # 101
Which of the following statements is FALSE on contracts for the leasing of assets?
- A. In lease agreement, the possession and right of use of an asset are transferred to the lessee
- B. The party responsible for maintenance, insurance and taxes is subject to negotiation
- C. The lessee may bear some risks of ownership, such as the liability to insure the asset
- D. The ownership of leased asset is transferred to the lessee at the end of the period
Answer: D
Explanation:
A lease is a contractual arrangement calling for the lessee (user) to pay the lessor (owner) for use of an asset. Some characteristics of Leases are:
- The right to use the lessor's asset is granted in exchange for a fee called the lease payment.
- The lease payments are usually paid in installments.
- Leases may be long- or short-term.
- At its inception a lease agreement constitutes a mutually unperformed contract Though the ownership of the asset is not transferred to the lessee, some responsibilities and risks do. The lessor and lessee may negotiate on who is responsible on maintenance, insurance, etc.
Reference:
LO 1, AC 1.3
NEW QUESTION # 102
What does quantum meruit mean?
- A. As much as is paid
- B. As much as is earned
- C. A non-graduations promise
- D. An implied promise
Answer: B
Explanation:
Quantum meruit means "the amount he deserves" or "as much as he has earned". In most cases it denotes a claim for a reasonable sum in respect of services or goods supplied to the defendant.
An action in quantum meruit is available to recover money for services or goods supplied to a defendant in circumstances where the claimant is not recompensed by performing his obligations or supplying the goods. The claimant must usually show that the defendant expressly or impliedly requested or freely accepted the services or goods in question. Depending on the facts, the claimant might find it difficult to prove how much the claimant is entitled to receive under the principle of quantum meruit.
A claim for quantum meruit cannot arise if the parties have a contract to pay an agreed sum. In such circumstances, the parties' relationship is governed by the law of contract. However, a claim for quantum meruit may arise where the parties:
- Have not agreed a contract, or there is a so-called quasi-contract. For example, the parties may have agreed some of the contractual terms, but may have failed to reach an agreement on an essential term, such as price.
- Have not fixed a price for the services or goods supplied.
- Have an agreement to pay a reasonable sum for the services or goods supplied.
- Have agreed a scope of work under the original contract and the work carried out falls outside that scope.
Reference:
LO 3, AC 3.1
NEW QUESTION # 103
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