[May-2026 Newly Released] CRISC Dumps for Isaca Certificaton Certified
Updated Verified CRISC dumps Q&As - 100% Pass
Main Requirements
To earn the ISACA CRISC certification, the applicants are required to pass a single test. Additionally, they must meet the experience-level eligibility requirement. This is at least three years of practical experience in the field of IT risk management and IS control. The experience level is an integral part of the exam prerequisites, and there is no waiver or substitution for it.
NEW QUESTION # 737
Which of the following is a KEY consideration for a risk practitioner to communicate to senior management evaluating the introduction of artificial intelligence (Al) solutions into the organization?
- A. Al potentially introduces new types of risk.
- B. Third-party Al solutions increase regulatory obligations.
- C. Al will result in changes to business processes.
- D. Al requires entirely new risk management processes.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Artificial intelligence (AI) solutions can offer significant benefits to an organization, such as improved efficiency, accuracy, and innovation. However, AI also poses new challenges and risks that need to be considered and addressed by senior management. Some of these risks include:
* Ethical and social risks: AI solutions may have unintended or undesirable impacts on human values, rights, and behaviors, such as privacy, fairness, accountability, and transparency. For example, AI systems may exhibit bias, discrimination, or manipulation, or may infringe on personal data or autonomy.
* Technical and operational risks: AI solutions may have vulnerabilities, errors, or failures that affect their performance, reliability, or security. For example, AI systems may be subject to hacking, tampering, or misuse, or may malfunction or produce inaccurate or harmful outcomes.
* Legal and regulatory risks: AI solutions may have unclear or conflicting legal or regulatory implications or obligations, such as liability, compliance, or governance. For example, AI systems may raise questions about ownership, responsibility, or accountability, or may violate existing laws or regulations, or create new ones.
Therefore, a risk practitioner should communicate to senior management that AI potentially introduces new types of risk that need to be identified, assessed, and managed in alignment with the organization's objectives, values, and risk appetite. References = ISACA CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.2, page 113.
NEW QUESTION # 738
Which of the following trends would cause the GREATEST concern regarding the effectiveness of an organization's user access control processes? An increase in the:
- A. ratio of disabled to active user accounts.
- B. average number of access entitlements per user account.
- C. percentage of users with multiple user accounts.
- D. average time between user transfers and access updates.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 739
Which types of controls are BEST used to minimize the risk associated with a vulnerability?
- A. Preventive
- B. Directive
- C. Detective
- D. Deterrent
Answer: A
Explanation:
Preventive controls are the best types of controls to minimize the risk associated with a vulnerability, because they aim to avoid or reduce the occurrence of a threat or an exploit. Preventive controls can include physical, technical, or administrative measures, such as locks, firewalls, encryption, policies, training, or backup.
Preventive controls can also involve eliminating or substituting the source of the vulnerability, such as outdated software or hardware.
References
*ISACA CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Domain 3: Risk Response, Section 3.2.1: Control Types
*Hazard Controls - Princeton University
*Risk Control | Techniques and Importance of Risk Control - EDUCBA
NEW QUESTION # 740
A web-based service provider with a low risk appetite for system outages is reviewing its current risk profile for online security. Which of the following observations would be MOST relevant to escalate to senior management?
- A. An increase in attempted website phishing attacks
- B. A decrease in remediated web security vulnerabilities
- C. A decrease in achievement of service level agreements (SLAs)
- D. An increase in attempted distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 741
You are an experienced Project Manager that has been entrusted with a project to develop a machine which produces auto components. You have scheduled meetings with the project team and the key stakeholders to identify the risks for your project. Which of the following is a key output of this process?
- A. Risk Breakdown Structure
- B. Risk Categories
- C. Risk Register
- D. Risk Management Plan
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The primary outputs from Identify Risks are the initial entries into the risk register. The risk register ultimately contains the outcomes of other risk management processes as they are conducted, resulting in an increase in the level and type of information contained in the risk register over time.
Incorrect Answers:
B, C, D: All these are outputs from the "Plan Risk Management" process, which happens prior to the starting of risk identification.
NEW QUESTION # 742
When confirming whether implemented controls are operating effectively, which of the following is MOST important to review?
- A. Maturity model
- B. Results of benchmarking studies
- C. Number of emergency change requests
- D. Results of risk assessments
Answer: C
Explanation:
The number of emergency change requests is the most important factor to review when confirming whether implemented controls are operating effectively, as it indicates the frequency and severity of incidents or issues that require urgent changes to the controls, and may reflect the control deficiencies or failures. The results of benchmarking studies, the results of risk assessments, and the maturity model are not the most important factors, as they are more related to the comparison, evaluation, or improvement of the controls, respectively, rather than the confirmation of the control effectiveness. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 154.
NEW QUESTION # 743
Which of the following is the MOST important reason to maintain key risk indicators (KRIs)?
- A. Complex metrics require fine-tuning
- B. Threats and vulnerabilities change over time
- C. Risk reports need to be timely
- D. Explanation:
Threats and vulnerabilities change over time and KRI maintenance ensures that KRIs continue to effectively capture these changes. The risk environment is highly dynamic as the enterprise's internal and external environments are constantly changing. Therefore, the set of KRIs needs to be changed over time, so that they can capture the changes in threat and vulnerability. - E. In order to avoid risk
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
is incorrect. While most key risk indicator (KRI) metrics need to be optimized in respect to their sensitivity, the most important objective of KRI maintenance is to ensure that KRIs continue to effectively capture the changes in threats and vulnerabilities over time. Hence the most important reason is that because of change of threat and vulnerability overtime. Answer: C is incorrect. Risk reporting timeliness is a business requirement, but is not a reason for KRI maintenance. Answer: A is incorrect. Risk avoidance is one possible risk response. Risk responses are based on KRI reporting, but is not the reason for maintenance of KRIs.
NEW QUESTION # 744
The cost of maintaining a control has grown to exceed the potential loss. Which of the following BEST describes this situation?
- A. Effective risk management
- B. Optimized control management
- C. Insufficient risk tolerance
- D. Over-controlled environment
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 745
A risk practitioner discovers that an IT operations team manager bypassed web filtering controls by using a mobile device, in violation of the network security policy. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
- A. Update the risk register.
- B. Report the incident.
- C. Assess the new risk.
- D. Plan a security awareness session.
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to the CRISC exam content outline2, one of the tasks of a risk practitioner is to "report on risk, in line with organizational reporting requirements, to enable decision making andescalation". Therefore, the first thing that the risk practitioner should do after discovering apolicy violation is to report the incident to the appropriate authority, such as the IT security manager or the risk management committee. This will ensurethat the incident is properly documented, investigated, and resolved, and that any potential impact or consequences are minimized.
The other options are not the first actions that the risk practitioner should take. Planning a security awareness session (B) may be a preventive measure to avoid future incidents, but it does not address the current one.
Assessing the new risk may be part of the risk response process, but it should be done after reporting the incident and gathering more information. Updating the risk register (D) may be a result of the risk assessment and response, but it should not be done before reporting the incident and following the organizational procedures.
NEW QUESTION # 746
A recent internal risk review reveals the majority of core IT application recovery time objectives (RTOs) have
exceeded the maximum time defined by the business application owners. Which of the following is MOST
likely to change as a result?
- A. Risk forecasting
- B. Risk likelihood
- C. Risk tolerance
- D. Risk appetite
Answer: C
Explanation:
Recovery time objectives (RTOs) are the maximum acceptable time frames for restoring the critical functions
and processes after a disruption1. RTOs are derived from the business impact analysis (BIA) andreflect the
organization's risk appetite, which is the amount of risk that an organization is willing to accept to achieve its
objectives2. Risk tolerance is the level of risk a company is willing to tolerate, and it is affected by a number
of factors, including how much uncertainty or financial loss can be tolerated and where those losses will
impact operations3. Risk tolerance is used to measure if the risk exposure is within the risk appetite and to
implement controls to reduce the residual risk to an acceptable level2. If the majority of core IT application
RTOs have exceeded the maximum time defined by the business application owners, it means that the
organization is not meeting its risk appetite and is exposed to more risk than it can accept. Therefore, the most
likely change as a result is to adjust the risk tolerance to reflect the current reality and to take actions to
improve the recovery capabilities and reduce the risk exposure4. Risk forecasting is the process of estimating
the potential outcomes and impacts of future events that may affect the organization's objectives5. Risk
forecasting may change as aresult of the RTOs exceeding the maximum time, but it is not the most likely
change, as it does not directly address the gap between the risk appetite and the risk exposure. Risk likelihood
is the probability of a risk event occurring5. Risk likelihood may change as a result of the RTOs exceeding
the maximum time, but it is not the most likely change, as it does not directly measure the impact of the risk
event on the organization's objectives. Risk appetite is the amount of risk that an organization is willing to
accept to achieve its objectives2. Risk appetite may change as a result of the RTOs exceeding the maximum
time, but it is not the most likely change, as it is a strategic decision that reflects the organization's vision and
mission, and not a tactical response to a specific risk event. References = Risk and Information Systems
Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 5.3: Business Continuity Planning,
pp. 227-238.
NEW QUESTION # 747
Implementing which of the following will BEST help ensure that systems comply with an established baseline before deployment?
- A. Vulnerability scanning
- B. Continuous monitoring and alerting
- C. Access controls and active logging
- D. Configuration management
Answer: D
Explanation:
Configuration management is a process that establishes and maintains the consistency and integrity of the IT systems and applications throughout their lifecycle. Configuration management involves identifying, documenting, controlling, and auditing the configuration items, such as hardware, software, data, or services, that comprise the IT systems and applications. Configuration management also involves establishing and enforcing the configuration baselines, which are the approved and authorized states of the configuration items.
Implementing configuration management will best help ensure that systems comply with an established baseline before deployment, as it will enable the enterprise to verify that the systems meet the specified requirements, standards, and policies, and to detect and correct any deviations or discrepancies. The other options are not as effective as configuration management, as they involve different aspects or outcomes of the IT systems and applications:
* Vulnerability scanning is a process that identifies and analyzes the weaknesses or gaps in the IT systems and applications that could be exploited by threats. Vulnerability scanning helps to assess the security and compliance of the systems, but it does not ensure that the systems comply with an established baseline before deployment, as it may not cover all the aspects or components of the systems, or may not reflect the latest changes or updates of the systems.
* Continuous monitoring and alerting is a process that tracks and reports the performance and status of the IT systems and applications on an ongoing basis. Continuous monitoring and alerting helps to identify and respond to any issues or incidents that affect the availability, integrity, or confidentiality of the systems, but it does not ensure that the systems comply with an established baseline before deployment, as it may not prevent or detect the unauthorized or unintended changes or modifications of the systems, or may not provide sufficient information or evidence to verify the compliance of the systems.
* Access controls and active logging are processes that restrict and record the access and activities of the users or entities on the IT systems and applications. Access controls and active logging help to protect and audit the IT systems and applications, but they do not ensure that the systems comply with an established baseline before deployment, as they may not address the configuration or quality issues of the systems, or may not be consistent or comprehensive across the systems. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1.1, pp. 156-157.
NEW QUESTION # 748
A risk practitioner implemented a process to notify management of emergency changes that may not be approved. Which of the following is the BEST way to provide this information to management?
- A. Key risk indicators (KRIs)
- B. Key control indicators (KCIs)
- C. Change logs
- D. Change management meeting minutes
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best way to provide information to management about emergency changes that may not be approved is to use key risk indicators (KRIs). KRIs are metrics that measure the likelihood and impact of risks, and help monitor and prioritize the most critical risks. KRIs help to provide information to management about emergency changes, because they help to alert and inform management about the potential risks and consequences of the changes, and to support the risk decision-making and reporting processes. KRIs also help to provide information to management about emergency changes, because they help to track and evaluate the effectiveness and performance of the changes, and to identify and address any issues or gaps that may arise from the changes. The other options are not the best way to provide information to management about emergency changes, although they may be part of or derived from the KRIs. Change logs, change management meeting minutes, and key control indicators (KCIs) are all examples of documentation or communication tools, which may help to record or report the details and status of the changes, but they do not necessarily measure or monitor the risks and outcomes of the changes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.5.1, page 4-38.
NEW QUESTION # 749
An organization uses a biometric access control system for authentication and access to its server room.
Which control type has been implemented?
- A. Corrective
- B. Preventive
- C. Detective
- D. Deterrent
Answer: B
Explanation:
Biometric systems are preventive controls designed to restrict access to authorized personnel only, thereby
proactively mitigating unauthorized access risks. This aligns withAccess and Authentication Controlprinciples
in risk management.
NEW QUESTION # 750
A teaming agreement is an example of what type of risk response?
- A. Share
- B. Transfer
- C. Mitigation
- D. Acceptance
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Teaming agreements are often coming under sharing risk response, as they involves joint ventures to realize an opportunity that an organization would not be able to seize otherwise.
Sharing response is where two or more entities share a positive risk. Teaming agreements are good example of sharing the reward that comes from the risk of the opportunity.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Acceptance is a risk response that is appropriate for positive or negative risk events. It does not pursue the risk, but documents the event and allows the risk to happen. Often acceptance is used for low probability and low impact risk events.
B: Risk mitigation attempts to reduce the probability of a risk event and its impacts to an acceptable level. Risk mitigation can utilize various forms of control carefully integrated together.
C: Transference is a negative risk response where the project manager hires a third party to own the risk event.
NEW QUESTION # 751
In a DevOps environment, a container does not pass dynamic application security testing (DAST). How should this situation be categorized?
- A. As an incident
- B. As an error
- C. As a risk scenario
- D. As a risk event
Answer: A
Explanation:
Failing a security test indicates a security control weakness already realized, qualifying as an incident (a deviation from expected security state).
CRISC guidance:
"When a vulnerability or control deficiency is detected through testing or monitoring, it constitutes an information security incident that must be logged and evaluated." A risk event is broader and refers to potential or hypothetical occurrences, not confirmed test failures.
Hence, C. As an incident is correct.
CRISC Reference: Domain 4 - Risk and Control Monitoring, Topic: Incident Management.
NEW QUESTION # 752
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To prepare for the CRISC exam, individuals must have a minimum of three years of experience in IT risk management and information security. CRISC exam covers four domains, which include risk identification, assessment, response, and monitoring. CRISC exam is a computer-based test and consists of 150 multiple-choice questions. CRISC exam takes four hours to complete, and individuals are required to score at least 450 out of 800 to pass.
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