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NEW QUESTION # 13
Exhibit
Your ISP is announcing a default route to both R1 and R2. You want your network routers to forward all Internet traffic through the R1 device Which BGP attribute would you use?
- A. next-hop
- B. origin
- C. local preference
- D. MED
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The BGP attribute that you would use to forward all Internet traffic through the R1 device is the local preference1.
The local preference is an attribute that is used within an autonomous system (AS) and exchanged between iBGP routers1. It is used to select an exit point from the AS1. The path with the highest local preference is preferred1. By setting a higher local preference for the routes received from R1, you can make R1 the preferred exit point for all Internet traffic1.
NEW QUESTION # 14
You are a network operator who wants to add a second ISP connection and remove the default route to the existing ISP You decide to deploy the BGP protocol in the network.
What two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)
- A. IBGP peers advertise routes received from EBGP peers to other IBGP peers.
- B. IBGP peers advertise routes received from IBGP peers to other IBGP peers.
- C. EBGP peers advertise routes received from IBGP peers to other EBGP peers.
- D. IBGP updates the next-hop attribute to ensure reachability within an AS.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
A is correct because IBGP updates the next-hop attribute to ensure reachability within an AS. This is because the next-hop attribute is the IP address of the router that advertises the route to a BGP peer. If the next-hop attribute is not changed by IBGP, it would be the IP address of an external router, which may not be reachable by all routers within the AS. Therefore, IBGP updates the next-hop attribute to the IP address of the router that received the route from an EBGP peer1.
B is correct because IBGP peers advertise routes received from EBGP peers to other IBGP peers. This is because BGP follows the rule of advertising only the best route to a destination, and EBGP routes have a higher preference than IBGP routes. Therefore, IBGP peers advertise routes learned from an EBGP peer to all BGP peers, including both EBGP and IBGP peers1.
NEW QUESTION # 15
What is the default keepalive time for BGP?
- A. 10 seconds
- B. 90 seconds
- C. 30 seconds
- D. 60 seconds
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The default keepalive time for BGP is 60 seconds1. The keepalive time is the interval at which BGP sends keepalive messages to maintain the connection with its peer1. If the keepalive message is not received within the hold time, the connection is considered lost1. By default, the hold time is three times the keepalive time, which is 180 seconds1.
NEW QUESTION # 16
You are troubleshooting a BGP routing issue between your network and a customer router and are reviewing the BGP routing policies. Which two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)
- A. Export policies are applied to routes in the RIB-ln table.
- B. Export policies are applied after the RIB-Local table.
- C. Import policies are applied to routes in the RIB-Local table.
- D. Import policies are applied after the RIB-ln table.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Explanation
In BGP, routing policies are used to control the flow of routing information between BGP peers1.
Option C suggests that import policies are applied after the RIB-In table. This is correct because import policies in BGP are applied to routes that are received from a BGP peer, before they are installed in the local BGP Routing Information Base (RIB-In)1. The RIB-In is a database that stores all the routes that are received from all peers1.
Option D suggests that export policies are applied after the RIB-Local table. This is correct because export policies in BGP are applied to routes that are being advertised to a BGP peer, after they have been selected from the local BGP Routing Information Base (RIB-Local)1. The RIB-Local is a database that stores all the routes that the local router is using1.
Therefore, options C and D are correct.
NEW QUESTION # 17
After receiving a BGP route, which two conditions are verified by the receiving router to ensure that the received route is valid? (Choose two)
- A. The next hop is reachable.
- B. The AS-path length is greater than 0.
- C. The loops do not exist.
- D. The local preference is greater than 0.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
B is correct because the loops do not exist is one of the conditions that are verified by the receiving router to ensure that the received BGP route is valid. A loop in BGP means that a route has been advertised by the same AS more than once, which can cause routing instability and inefficiency1. To prevent loops, BGP uses the AS-path attribute, which lists the AS numbers that a route has traversed from the origin to the destination2. The receiving router checks the AS-path attribute of the received route and discards it if it finds its own AS number in the list2. This way, BGP avoids accepting routes that contain loops.
C is correct because the next hop is reachable is one of the conditions that are verified by the receiving router to ensure that the received BGP route is valid. The next hop is the IP address of the next router that is used to forward packets to the destination network3. The receiving router checks the next hop attribute of the received route and verifies that it has a valid route to reach it3. If the next hop is not reachable, the received route is not usable and is rejected by the receiving router3. This way, BGP ensures that only feasible routes are accepted.
NEW QUESTION # 18
Exhibit.
The ispi _ inet. 0 route table has currently no routes in it.
What will happen when you commit the configuration shown on the exhibit?
- A. The inet. 0 route table will be completely overwritten by the ispi . inet. 0 route table.
- B. The ISPI . inet. 0 route table will be completely overwritten by the inet. o route table.
- C. The ISPI . inet. 0 route table will be imported into the inet. 0 route table.
- D. The inet. 0 route table will be imported into the ispi . inet. 0 route table.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The configuration shown in the exhibit is an example of a routing instance of type virtual-router. A routing instance is a collection of routing tables, interfaces, and routing protocol parameters that create a separate routing domain on a Juniper device1. A virtual-router routing instance allows administrators to divide a device into multiple independent virtual routers, each with its own routing table2.
The configuration also includes a rib-group statement, which is used to import routes from one routing table to another. A rib-group consists of an import-rib statement, which specifies the source routing table, and an export-rib statement, which specifies the destination routing table.
In this case, the rib-group name is inet-to-ispi, and the import-rib statement specifies inet.0 as the source routing table. The export-rib statement specifies ispi.inet.0 as the destination routing table. This means that the routes from inet.0 will be imported into ispi.inet.0.
Therefore, the correct answer is B. The inet.0 route table will be imported into the ispi.inet.0 route table.
References:
1: Routing Instances Overview 2: Virtual Routing Instances : [rib-group (Routing Options)]
NEW QUESTION # 19
You are concerned about spoofed MAC addresses on your LAN.
Which two Layer 2 security features should you enable to minimize this concern? (Choose two.)
- A. IP source guard
- B. dynamic ARP inspection
- C. static ARP
- D. DHCP snooping
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
A is correct because dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is a Layer 2 security feature that prevents ARP spoofing attacks. ARP spoofing is a technique that allows an attacker to send fake ARP messages to associate a spoofed MAC address with a legitimate IP address. This can result in traffic redirection, man-in-the-middle attacks, or denial-of-service attacks. DAI validates ARP packets by checking the source MAC address and IP address against a trusted database, which is usually built by DHCP snooping1. DAI discards any ARP packets that do not match the database or have invalid formats1.
C is correct because DHCP snooping is a Layer 2 security feature that prevents DHCP spoofing attacks.
DHCP spoofing is a technique that allows an attacker to act as a rogue DHCP server and offer fake IP addresses and other network parameters to unsuspecting clients. This can result in traffic redirection, man-in-the-middle attacks, or denial-of-service attacks. DHCP snooping filters DHCP messages by classifying switch ports as trusted or untrusted. Trusted ports are allowed to send and receive any DHCP messages, while untrusted ports are allowed to send only DHCP requests and receive only valid DHCP replies from trusted ports2. DHCP snooping also builds a database of MAC addresses, IP addresses, lease times, and binding types for each client2.
NEW QUESTION # 20
You are attempting to configure the initial two aggregated Ethernet interfaces on a router but there are no aggregated Ethernet interfaces available.
In this scenario, which configuration will enable these interfaces on this router?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer to your question is
Option C shows the configuration of the statement, which defines the properties of the router chassis, such as the number of aggregated Ethernet interfaces, the number of FPCs, and the number of PICs1.
To enable aggregated Ethernet interfaces on a router, you need to specify the aggregated-devices statement under the chassis parameter to the desired number of interfaces2. For example, to enable two aggregated Ethernet interfaces, you can use the following configuration:
chassis { aggregated-devices { ethernet { device-count 2; } } }
Option C shows this configuration with the device-count set to 2, which will enable two aggregated Ethernet interfaces on the router. The other options do not show this configuration and will not enable any aggregated Ethernet interfaces on the router.
Therefore, option C is the correct answer to your question.
NEW QUESTION # 21
Exhibit.
Which router will become the OSPF BDR if all routers are powered on at the same time?
- A. R3
- B. R2
- C. R1
- D. R4
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
OSPF DR/BDR election is a process that occurs on multi-access data links. It is intended to select two OSPF nodes: one to be acting as the Designated Router (DR), and another to be acting as the Backup Designated Router (BDR).The DR and BDR are responsible for generating network LSAs for the multi-access network and synchronizing the LSDB with other routers on the same network1.
The DR/BDR election is based on two criteria: the OSPF priority and the router ID. The OSPF priority is a value between 0 and 255 that can be configured on each interface participating in OSPF. The default priority is
1. A priority of 0 means that the router will not participate in the election and will never become a DR or BDR. The router with the highest priority will become the DR, and the router with the second highest priority will become the BDR. If there is a tie in priority, then the router ID is used as a tie-breaker. The router ID is a
32-bit number that uniquely identifies each router in an OSPF domain.It can be manually configured or automatically derived from the highest IP address on a loopback interface or any active interface2.
In this scenario, all routers have the same priority of 1, so the router ID will determine the outcome of the election. The router IDs are shown in the exhibit as RID values. The highest RID belongs to R4 (10.10.10.4), so R4 will become the DR. The second highest RID belongs to R3 (10.10.10.3), so R3 will become the BDR.
References:
1:OSPF DR/BDR Election: Process, Configuration, and Tuning2:OSPF Designated Router (DR) and Backup Designated Router (BDR)
NEW QUESTION # 22
Which two events cause a router to advertise a connected network to OSPF neighbors? (Choose two.)
- A. When a static route to the 224.0.0.6 address is created.
- B. When an interface has the OSPF passive option enabled.
- C. When a static route to the 224.0.0.5 address is created.
- D. When an OSPF adjacency is established.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
A is correct because when an OSPF adjacency is established, a router will advertise a connected network to OSPF neighbors. An OSPF adjacency is a logical relationship between two routers that agree to exchange routing information using the OSPF protocol1. To establish an OSPF adjacency, the routers must be in the same area, have compatible parameters, and exchange hello packets1. Once an OSPF adjacency is formed, the routers will exchange database description (DBD) packets, which contain summaries of their link-state databases (LSDBs)1. The LSDBs include information about the connected networks and their costs2. Therefore, when an OSPF adjacency is established, a router will advertise a connected network to OSPF neighbors through DBD packets.
D is correct because when a static route to the 224.0.0.5 address is created, a router will advertise a connected network to OSPF neighbors. The 224.0.0.5 address is the multicast address for all OSPF routers3. A static route to this address can be used to send OSPF hello packets to all OSPF neighbors on a network segment3. This can be useful when the network segment does not support multicast or when the router does not have an IP address on the segment3. When a static route to the 224.0.0.5 address is created, the router will send hello packets to this address and establish OSPF adjacencies with other routers on the segment3. As explained above, once an OSPF adjacency is formed, the router will advertise a connected network to OSPF neighbors through DBD packets.
NEW QUESTION # 23
You are asked to create a new firewall filter to evaluate Layer 3 traffic that is being sent between VLANs. In this scenario, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
- A. You should create a family inet firewall filter with the appropriate match criteria and actions.
- B. You should apply the firewall filter to the appropriate IRB interface.
- C. You should create a family Ethernet-switching firewall filter with the appropriate match criteria and actions.
- D. You should apply the firewall filter to the appropriate VLAN.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Explanation
A firewall filter is a configuration that defines the rules that determine whether to forward or discard packets at specific processing points in the packet flow. A firewall filter can also modify the attributes of the packets, such as priority, marking, or logging. A firewall filter can be applied to various interfaces, protocols, or routing instances on a Juniper device1.
A firewall filter has a family attribute, which specifies the type of traffic that the filter can evaluate. The family attribute can be one of the following: inet, inet6, mpls, vpls, iso, or ethernet-switching2. The family inet firewall filter is used to evaluate IPv4 traffic, which is the most common type of Layer 3 traffic on a network.
To create a family inet firewall filter, you need to specify the appropriate match criteria and actions for each term in the filter. The match criteria can include various fields in the IPv4 header, such as source address, destination address, protocol, port number, or DSCP value. The actions can include accept, discard, reject, count, log, policer, or next term3.
To apply a firewall filter to Layer 3 traffic that is being sent between VLANs, you need to apply the filter to the appropriate IRB interface. An IRB interface is an integrated routing and bridging interface that provides Layer 3 functionality for a VLAN on a Juniper device. An IRB interface has an IP address that acts as the default gateway for the hosts in the VLAN. An IRB interface can also participate in routing protocols and forward packets to other VLANs or networks4.
Therefore, option C is correct, because you should create a family inet firewall filter with the appropriate match criteria and actions. Option D is correct, because you should apply the firewall filter to the appropriate IRB interface.
Option A is incorrect, because you should not create a family ethernet-switching firewall filter with the appropriate match criteria and actions. A family ethernet-switching firewall filter is used to evaluate Layer 2 traffic on a Juniper device. A family ethernet-switching firewall filter can only match on MAC addresses or VLAN IDs, not on IP addresses or protocols5.
Option B is incorrect, because you should not apply the firewall filter to the appropriate VLAN. A VLAN is a logical grouping of hosts that share the same broadcast domain on a Layer 2 network. A VLAN does not have an IP address or routing capability. A firewall filter cannot be applied directly to a VLAN; it must be applied to an interface that belongs to or connects to the VLAN6.
References:
1: Firewall Filters Overview 2: Configuring Firewall Filters 3: Configuring Firewall Filter Match Conditions and Actions 4: Understanding Integrated Routing and Bridging Interfaces 5: Configuring Ethernet-Switching Firewall Filters 6: Understanding VLANs
NEW QUESTION # 24
You have two OSPF routers forming an adjacency. R1 has a priority of 32 and a router ID of 192.168.1.2. R2 has a priority of 64 and a router ID of 192.168.1.1. The routers were started at the same time and all other OSPF settings are the default settings.
Which statement is correct in this scenario?
- A. R1 will be the BDR.
- B. R2 will be the BDR.
- C. Router IDs must match for an adjacency to form.
- D. At least three routers are required for a DR/BDR election
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
In OSPF, the Designated Router (DR) and Backup Designated Router (BDR) are elected based on the priority of the routers1. The router with the highest priority becomes the DR, and the router with the second highest priority becomes the BDR1. If there is a tie in priority, then the router with the highest Router ID is chosen1.
In this scenario, R2 has a higher priority (64) than R1 (32), so R2 will become the DR1. Since R1 has the second highest priority, it will become the BDR1. Therefore, option D is correct.
NEW QUESTION # 25
Which statement is correct about IP-IP tunnels?
- A. There are 24 bytes of overhead with IP-IP encapsulation.
- B. The TTL in the inner packet is decremented during transit to the tunnel endpoint.
- C. IP-IP tunnels only support encapsulating non-IP traffic.
- D. IP-IP tunnels only support encapsulating IP traffic.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
IP-IP tunnels are a type of tunnels that use IP as both the encapsulating and encapsulated protocol. IP-IP tunnels are simple and easy to configure, but they do not provide any security or authentication features. IP-IP tunnels only support encapsulating IP traffic, which means that the payload of the inner packet must be an IP packet. IP-IP tunnels cannot encapsulate non-IP traffic, such as Ethernet frames or MPLS labels1.
Option A is correct, because IP-IP tunnels only support encapsulating IP traffic. Option B is incorrect, because IP-IP tunnels only support encapsulating non-IP traffic. Option C is incorrect, because the TTL in the inner packet is not decremented during transit to the tunnel endpoint. The TTL in the outer packet is decremented by each router along the path, but the TTL in the inner packet is preserved until it reaches the tunnel endpoint2.
Option D is incorrect, because there are 20 bytes of overhead with IP-IP encapsulation. The overhead consists of the header of the outer packet, which has a fixed size of 20 bytes for IPv43.
References:
1: IP-IP Tunneling 2: What is tunneling? | Tunneling in networking 3: IPv4 - Header
NEW QUESTION # 26
Exhibit
Which command displays the output shown in the exhibit?
- A. show ethernet-switching table extensive
- B. show route forwarding-table family ethernet-switching
- C. show route forwarding-table
- D. show ethernet-switching table
Answer: D
Explanation:
The output shown in the exhibit is a brief display of the Ethernet switching table, which shows the learned Layer 2 MAC addresses for each VLAN and interface1.
The command show ethernet-switching table displays the Ethernet switching table with brief information, such as the destination MAC address, the VLAN name, the forwarding state, and the interface name1.
The command show route forwarding-table displays the routing table information for each protocol family, such as inet, inet6, mpls, iso, and so on2. It does not show the Ethernet switching table or the MAC addresses.
The command show ethernet-switching table extensive displays the Ethernet switching table with extensive information, such as the destination MAC address, the VLAN name, the forwarding state, the interface name, the VLAN index, and the tag type1. It shows more details than the brief output shown in the exhibit.
The command show route forwarding-table family ethernet-switching displays the routing table information for the ethernet-switching protocol family, whichshows the destination MAC address, the next-hop MAC address, and the interface name3. It does not show the VLAN name or the forwarding state.
NEW QUESTION # 27
Exhibit
You are a network operator troubleshooting BGP connectivity.
Which two statements are correct about the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
- A. The routers are exchanging IPv4 routes.
- B. The BGP session is not established.
- C. The R1 is configured for AS 65400.
- D. Peer 10.32.1.2 is configured for AS 63645.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Explanation
Option B suggests that the BGP session is not established. This is correct because in the output, the state of the BGP session is shown as "Idle". In BGP, an "Idle" state means that the BGP session is not currently established1.
Option C suggests that R1 is configured for AS 65400. This is also correct because in the output, it's shown that the local AS number is 654001. The local AS number represents the Autonomous System (AS) number of the router on which you're checking the BGP session1.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Exhibit.
You are using OSPF to advertise the subnets that are used by the Denver and Dallas offices. The routers that are directly connected to the Dallas and Denver subnets are not advertising the connected subnets.
Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
- A. Configure and apply a routing policy that redistributes the Dallas and Denver subnets using Type 5 LSAs.
- B. Enable the passive option on the OSPF interfaces that are connected to the Dallas and Denver subnets.
- C. Create static routes on the switches using the local vMX router's loopback interface for the next hop.
- D. Configure and apply a routing policy that redistributes the connected Dallas and Denver subnets.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Explanation
The routers that are directly connected to the Dallas and Denver subnets are not advertising the connected subnets. This can be resolved by redistributing the connected subnets into OSPF1.
Option C suggests to configure and apply a routing policy that redistributes the connected Dallas and Denver subnets. This is correct because redistribution allows routes from one routing protocol to be communicated to another, and in this case, it allows the connected subnets to be advertised through OSPF1.
Option D suggests enabling the passive option on the OSPF interfaces that are connected to the Dallas and Denver subnets. This is also correct because in OSPF, a passive interface is an interface that belongs to the OSPF router, but does not send OSPF Hello packets1. It's typically used on an interface that you don't want to use for OSPF adjacencies, but you still want to advertise its IP address1. Therefore, enabling passive interface can help in advertising the Dallas and Denver subnets.
NEW QUESTION # 29
You are asked to connect an IP phone and a user computer using the same interface on an EX Series switch.
The traffic from the computer does not use a VLAN tag, whereas the traffic from the IP phone uses a VLAN tag.
Which feature enables the interface to receive both types of traffic?
- A. native VLAN
- B. MAC limiting
- C. voice VLAN
- D. DHCP snooping
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The feature that enables an interface on an EX Series switch to receive both untagged traffic (from the computer) and tagged traffic (from the IP phone) is the voice VLAN12.
The voice VLAN feature in EX-series switches enables access ports to accept both data (untagged) and voice (tagged) traffic and separate that traffic into different VLANs12. This allows the switch to differentiate between voice and data traffic, ensuring that voice traffic can be treated with a higher priority12. Therefore, option D is correct.
NEW QUESTION # 30
Exhibit
You have configured a GRE tunnel. To reduce the risk of dropping traffic, you have configured a keepalive OAM probe to monitor the state of the tunnel; however, traffic drops are still occurring.
Referring to the exhibit, what is the problem?
- A. The "event link-adjacency-loss" option must be set.
- B. The hold-time value must be two times the keepalive-time value
- C. LLDP needs to be removed from the gr-1/1/10.1 interface.
- D. For GRE tunnels, the OAM protocol requires that the BFD protocols also be used.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A keepalive OAM probe is a mechanism that can be used to monitor the state of a GRE tunnel and detect any failures in the tunnel path. A keepalive OAM probe consists of sending periodic packets from one end of the tunnel to the other and expecting a reply. If no reply is received within a specified time, the tunnel is considered down and the line protocol of the tunnel interface is changed to down1.
To configure a keepalive OAM probe for a GRE tunnel, you need to specify two parameters: the keepalive-time and the hold-time. The keepalive-time is the interval between each keepalive packet sent by the local router. The hold-time is the maximum time that the local router waits for a reply from the remote router before declaring the tunnel down2.
According to the Juniper Networks documentation, the hold-time value must be two times the keepalive-time value for a GRE tunnel2. This is because the hold-time value must account for both the round-trip time of the keepalive packet and the processing time of the remote router. If the hold-time value is too small, it may cause false positives and unnecessary tunnel flaps.
In the exhibit, the configuration shows that the keepalive-time is set to 10 seconds and the hold-time is set to
15 seconds for the gr-1/1/10.1 interface. This means that the local router will send a keepalive packet every 10 seconds and will wait for 15 seconds for a reply from the remote router. However, this hold-time value is not two times the keepalive-time value, which violates the recommended configuration. This may cause traffic drops if the remote router takes longer than 15 seconds to reply.
Therefore, option D is correct, because the hold-time value must be two times the keepalive-time value for a GRE tunnel. Option A is incorrect, because BFD is not required for GRE tunnels; BFD is another protocol that can be used to monitor tunnels, but it is not compatible with GRE keepalives3. Option B is incorrect, because the "event link-adjacency-loss" option is not related to GRE tunnels; it is an option that can be used to trigger an action when a link goes down4. Option C is incorrect, because LLDP does not need to be removed from the gr-1/1/10.1 interface; LLDP is a protocol that can be used to discover neighboring devices and their capabilities, but it does not interfere with GRE tunnels5.
References:
1: Configuring Keepalive Time and Hold time for a GRE Tunnel Interface 2: keepalive | Junos OS | Juniper Networks 3: Configuring Bidirectional Forwarding Detection 4: event link-adjacency-loss | Junos OS | Juniper Networks 5: Understanding Link Layer Discovery Protocol
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which two statements correctly describe RSTP port roles? (Choose two.)
- A. The alternate port is a standby port for an edge port.
- B. The root port is responsible for forwarding data to the root bridge.
- C. The designated port forwards data to the downstream network segment or device.
- D. The backup port is used as a backup for the root port.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Explanation
In Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP), there are several port roles that determine the behavior of the port in the spanning tree1.
Option A suggests that the designated port forwards data to the downstream network segment or device. This is correct because the designated port is the port on a network segment that has the best path to the root bridge1. It's responsible for forwarding frames towards the root bridge and sending configuration messages into its segment1.
Option D suggests that the root port is responsible for forwarding data to the root bridge. This is also correct because the root port is always the link directly connected to the root bridge, or the shortest path to the root bridge1. It's used to forward traffic towards the root bridge1.
Therefore, options A and D are correct.
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which two statements about redundant trunk groups on EX Series switches are correct? (Choose two.)
- A. Layer 2 control traffic is permitted on the secondary link
- B. If the active link fails, then the secondary link automatically takes over.
- C. Redundant trunk groups must be connected to the same aggregation switch.
- D. Redundant trunk groups load-balance traffic across two designated uplink interfaces.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Explanation
Redundant Trunk Groups (RTGs) on EX Series switches provide a simple solution for network recovery when a trunk port on a switch goes down1. They are configured on the access switch and contain two links: a primary or active link, and a secondary link1. Therefore, option B is correct because if the active link fails, the secondary link automatically starts forwarding data traffic without waiting for normal spanning-tree protocol convergence1.
Option D is also correct. In a typical enterprise network composed of distribution and access layers, RTGs are used where one Access switch is connected to two different uplink switches2. This implies that RTGs must be connected to the same aggregation switch2.
NEW QUESTION # 33
In RSTP, which three port roles are associated with the discarding state? (Choose three.)
- A. backup
- B. disabled
- C. root
- D. designated
- E. alternate
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
Explanation
In Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP), there are several port roles that determine the behavior of the port in the spanning tree123. The roles include root, designated, alternate, backup, and disabled123.
The discarding state is associated with the backup, alternate, and disabled roles123. In a stable topology with consistent port roles throughout the network, RSTP ensures that every root port and designated port immediately transition to the forwarding state while all alternate and backup ports are always in the discarding state2. Disabled ports are also in the discarding state3.
Therefore, options B, C, and D are correct.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which two BGP attributes must be supported by all BGP implementations and must be included in every update? (Choose two.)
- A. next hop
- B. AS path
- C. community
- D. MED
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Explanation
BGP attributes are properties that BGP uses for route advertisement, path selection, and loop prevention1. There are four categories of BGP attributes123:
Well-known mandatory: Must be recognized by all BGP routers, present in all BGP updates, and passed on to other BGP routers123.
Well-known discretionary: Supported by all BGP implementations, and are optionally included in BGP updates1.
Optional transitive: May not be supported by all implementations of BGP1.
Optional non-transitive: May not be supported by all implementations of BGP1.
The well-known mandatory attributes must be supported by all BGP implementations and must be included in every update123. These include the AS path and next hop attributes23. Therefore, options A and C are correct.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Exhibit.
You have configured the four EX Series switches with RSTP, as shown in the exhibit. You discover that whenever a link between switches goes up or down, the switches take longer than expected for RSTP to converge, using the default settings.
In this scenario, which action would solve the delay in RSTP convergence?
- A. The force-version must be removed.
- B. The max-age must be increased to 20
- C. The hello-time must be increased.
- D. The bridge priority for EX-4 must be set at 4000.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The exhibit shows the configuration of RSTP on EX-4, which has the command force-version stp. This command forces the switch to use the legacy STP protocol instead of RSTP, even though the switch supports RSTP1. This means that EX-4 will not be able to take advantage of the faster convergence and enhanced features of RSTP, such as edge ports, link type, and proposal/agreement sequence2.
The other switches in the network are likely to be running RSTP, as it is the default protocol for EX Series switches3. Therefore, there will be a compatibility issue between EX-4 and the other switches, which will result in longer convergence times and suboptimal performance. The switch will also generate a warning message that says "Warning: STP version mismatch with neighbor" when it receives a BPDU from a RSTP neighbor1.
To solve this problem, the force-version command must be removed from EX-4, so that it can run RSTP natively and interoperate with the other switches in the network. This will enable faster convergence and better stability for the network topology. To remove the command, you can use the delete protocols rstp force-version command in configuration mode1.
NEW QUESTION # 36
What is the default MAC age-out timer on an EX Series switch?
- A. 300 minutes
- B. 300 seconds
- C. 30 minutes
- D. 30 seconds
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The default MAC age-out timer on an EX Series switch is 300 seconds12. The MAC age-out timer is the maximum time that an entry can remain in the MAC table before it "ages out," or is removed31. This configuration can influence efficiency of network resource use by affecting the amount of traffic that is flooded to all interfaces1. When traffic is received for MAC addresses no longer in the Ethernet routing table, the router floods the traffic to all interfaces1.
NEW QUESTION # 37
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